| Christ and the woman taken in adultery, drawing by Rembrandt |
Manuscript Evidence
Even though it is true that particularly the manuscripts of the Alexandrian region lack this text, it is still found in the early Codex Bezae from the 400s. The Codex Bezae includes the Pericope Adulterae within the main text, without indicating any doubt on its authenticity. It is also found very early on in the Latin manuscripts, the Latin Vulgate dates to the late 4th century, which is close to the timing of the Vaticanus and the manuscripts used by Jerome were likely of similar age as the Vaticanus. Therefore, the Latin Vulgate is an important witness to the Pericope Adulterae. It is also found in many of the Vetus Latina manuscripts, and so the comments that this story is missing from the earliest manuscripts is very selective, as it does not take into account the early Western manuscripts.
- Latin Vulgate (383ad) (although we do not have the original Vulgate manuscript, we know that the original included the passage) (Latin)
- Codex Bezae (400ad) (Latin and Greek)
- Codex Palatinus (400ad) (Latin)
- Codex Corbeiensis (400ad) (Latin)
- Codex Veronesis (400ad) (Latin)
- Codex Sarzanesis (400ad) (Latin)
- Codex Fuldensis (541ad) (Latin)
- Codex Usserianus Primus (600ad) (Latin)
- Unicial 047 (700ad) (Greek)
- Unicial 0233 (700ad) (Greek)
- Book of Mulling (700ad) (Latin)
- Basilensis A. N. III. 12 (700ad) (Greek)
- Seidelianus (800ad) (Greek)
- Cyprius (800ad) (Greek)
- Campianus (800ad) (Greek)
- Unicial 030 (800ad) (Greek)
- Petropolitanus (800ad) (Greek)
- Boorelianus (875ad) (Greek)
The Early Christians
Put to death the thief. Stone the petulant. Choose not to read in the Gospel that the Lord spared even the adulteress who confessed, when none had condemned her; that He absolved the sinner who washed His feet with her tears; that He delivered Rahab at Jericho, itself a city of the Phoenicians; that He set Tamar free from the sentence of the Patriarch; that when the Sodomites also perished, He destroyed not the daughters of Lot; willing likewise to have delivered his sons-in-law, had they believed the destruction to come.” Letter 3(39) Against the treatise of the Novatians (Pacian)None of the accusers of the woman taken in adultery were without sin. Christ wrote their names in the earth (Jerome, Against the Pelagians (Book 2.17))
enemies of the true faith, fearing, I suppose, lest their wives should be given impunity in sinning, removed from their manuscripts the Lord’s act of forgiveness toward the adulteress, as if He who had said ‘sin no more’ had granted permission to sin (Augustine, Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum)
Now, it is not contested that this text was widely know in the Western church, nevertheless due to an outdated claim, some have argued that this passage was totally unknown in the writings of the east until around the 12th century, to give an example Metzger wrote thus: "Euthymius Zigabenus, who lived in the first part of the twelfth century, is the first Greek writer to comment on the passage, and even he declares that the accurate copies of the Gospel do not contain it". Not to mention that we have manuscripts from the east before the 12th century which contain this story, we also have multiple eastern attestations to the story of the adulteress in the very early church. Didymus the Blind in the 4th century, living in Alexandria mentioned that he knew of multiple manuscripts which included this story, Didymus writing:
We find therefore in certain Gospels. A woman it says was condemned by the Jews for a sin and was being sent to be stoned in the place where that was customary to happen. The saviour it says when he saw her and observed that they were ready to stone her said to those who were about to cast stones ‘He who has not sinned let him take a stone and cast it ‘ If anyone is conscious in himself not to have sinned let him take up a stone and smite her. And no one dared. Since they knew in themselves and perceived that they themselves were guilty in some things they did not dare to strike her
in the Gospel according to John in many manuscripts, both Greek and Latin, is found thestory of the adulterous woman who was accused before the Lord (Migne. Patrologiae Cursus Completus. Series Latina, Volume. 23, col. 579.)
If, however, you do not receive a penitent back, being without mercy, you have sinned against the Lord God, since you would not have obeyed nor trusted in God our Saviour, nor acted as did he on account of the woman who had sinned, when the elders set her before him and departed, leaving judgement in his hands. He looked into her heart and asked whether the elders had condemned her. When she said not, he said to her: ‘Go, nor do I condemn you.’
Interestingly, Agapius of Hierapolis (10th century) writes that Papias in the early 2nd century already knew of this passage in the Gospel of John:
And there was at that time in Menbij [Hierapolis] a distinguished master who had many treatises, and he wrote five treatises on the Gospel. And he mentions in his treatise on the Gospel of John, that in the book of John the Evangelist, he speaks of a woman who was adulterous
It should be also noted that the text was quoted by Rufinus of Aquilea (345-411ad), who although was a western Christian, studied under Didymus the Blind in the east, and thus was familiar with Eastern manuscripts quoted it as scripture:
A woman taken in adultery was brought before our Lord by the Jews, so that they might see what judgment he would pronounce according to the law. He, the merciful and pitying Lord, said: ‘He that is without sin among you let him cast a stone at her. And then, it is said, they all departed.”
Other early Eastern, Aramaic or Greek speaking authors who reference the passage include the Apostolic Constitutions (4th century), Pseudo-Athanasius (6th century) and Zacharias Rhetor (6th century). A 10th century Greek named Nikon also accused the Armenians as deleting the passage from their manuscripts "casting out the account which teaches us how the adulteress was taken to Jesus . . . saying that it was harmful for most persons to listen to such things" (S. S. Patrum J. B. Cotelerius, Antwerp, 1698, vol. i, p.235) So how can the claim that it was unknown to the Greek speaking world until Euthymius Zigabenus be still made by textual critics?
Additionally, some have pointed out that the 2nd century Gospel of James may perhaps include allusions to the Pericope Adulterae, as it reads "If the Lord God has not revealed your sins, neither do I condemn you" (16,2) (There is a variant in the text, where some manuscripts read "condemn" and some read "judge", however we see this variant in the biblical texts also. Many Byzantine manuscripts read "judge" while the TR reads "condemn"). This might be a possible allusion to the Pericope Adultarae in the Gospel of John, where it reads: "She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more.". It has also been pointed out that the Gospel of James contains multiple other parallers to the story of the adulteress, making it very likely to have drawn from it as a source.
The omission of the pericope
This is a good article! You are a good researcher. Keep up the good work brother. I myself just came to believe that the Pericope Adulterae is genuine very recently (just the other night, in fact), based on something I read by William Barclay which I will explain below.
ReplyDeleteAlthough I do not hold to the Byzantine priority view of the New Testament manuscripts (I personally view the few older manuscripts as more trustworthy than the many newer manuscripts), I do agree with you that the Pericope Adulterae was most likely in the original text. It's free grace, and I'd say that's likely why it was removed. When I heard Barclay explain it along those lines, it convinced me.
Barclay has an interesting note on this issue at the end of his commentary on the Gospel of John. It's in Volume 2 of his Daily Study Bible Series (I have the Revised Edition), and the section is titled "Note on The Story of the Woman Taken in Adultery" (p. 290). He argues that it was removed due to (in your words) "theological piety". I think that's a nice way to say it, lol. I can also think of a few other ways to describe it!
As you noted, the story is referenced or alluded to quite early (exactly how early is debatable, but the point is true in the main that it can be traced back to quite an early date). Then the story was removed from the manuscripts, then it is added back in.
Barclay asks, "What is the explanation?" and he goes on to say: "Augustine gives us a hint. He says that this story was removed from the text of the gospel because 'some were of slight faith,' and 'to avoid scandal.' We cannot tell for certain, but it would seem that in the very early days the people who edited the text of the New Testament thought that this was a dangerous story [where have we heard that before, i.e., that free grace is dangerous??], a justification for a light view of adultery, and therefore omitted it. After all, the Christian Church was a little island in a sea of paganism. Its members were so apt to relapse into a way of life where chastity was unknown; and were for ever open to pagan infection. But as time went on the danger grew less, or was less feared, and the story, which had always circulated by word of mouth and which one manuscript retained, came back. [...] In spite of the doubt that the modern translations cast on it, and in spite of the fact that the early manuscripts do not include it [except "only in one," says Barclay], we may be sure that this is a real story about Jesus, although one so gracious [!] that for long men were afraid to tell it." (Ibid., pp. 291-292, brackets added.)
It seems, then, that the story of the woman caught in adultery was removed from the Bible because it was scandalous grace (just like the gospel is). To me, that verifies the free grace gospel, because it too is scandalous: "Being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus" (Rom. 3:24). Praise the Lord!
[Continued below...]
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ReplyDeleteBTW, Barclay's comment also helps to solve the problem you mentioned at the end of your article, when you said: "While it is possible that some copyists might have done that [removed the Pericope Adulterae due to their 'theological piety'], I do not believe that it is a sufficient reason for its absence in most of the manuscripts we have..." That seems fair to say. However, if the removal of the Pericope Adulterae happened "in the very early days" (as Barclay surmises, p. 291), when "the people who edited the text of the New Testament thought that this was a dangerous story" (Ibid., p. 291), then it would have been BEFORE "most of the manuscripts we have." You see what I'm saying? A very logical explanation is that this orchestrated removal is evidence for a "very early" date of removal!! BEFORE there were very many NT manuscripts to remove it from. (Because how else do you explain it's removal from so many different manuscripts in different parts of the world?) And thus this would therefore attest to a "very early" date of inclusion of the Pericope Adulterae in the NT manuscripts, before there were very many copies! You see what I'm saying? Otherwise if it wasn't removed until later when there were more NT copies/manuscripts, how was the removal orchestrated?? It would need to be orchestrated but not orchestrated, and that is vastly more difficult to do and to explain. The simplest/easiest explanation it seems to me, is that the Pericope Adulterae was in the original NT manuscript text, and thus in the very early copies, but then "very early" (when there were still not very many NT manuscripts) it was then removed.
ReplyDeleteIn other words, what you're asking is: How do we explain the fact that the Pericope Adulterae was removed from all these different manuscripts, written at all these different times, in all these different parts of the world? Whereas, what I'm saying is: If the Pericope Adulterae was removed "very early" when there was only, say, a handful of localized manuscripts, that would not be difficult to do, right? Five local scribes would simply get together and agree not to copy the Pericope Adulterae in any future NT manuscripts that they copied. In that case, it would be an easy thing to do...if it was removed "in the very early days" (as Barclay suggests). So that supports the conclusion that the Pericope Adulterae has "very early" attestation in the NT manuscripts. And if so, why do scholars question its authenticity? That would support it's authenticity! You see what I'm saying?
BTW, I'm not convinced that the Pericope Adulterae was originally in John's Gospel. In some NT manuscripts the story appears in Luke's Gospel. The reason I question if it was originally in John's Gospel is because of the relatively late date of when the Gospel of John was written (likely around 85-90 A.D.), and also because many of the Greek words in the Pericope Adulterae are otherwise non-Johaninne, that is, they occur nowhere else in John's Gospel. Therefore I tend to think that it is more likely that the Pericope Adulterae was originally in Luke's Gospel. It is placed after Luke 21:38 in some NT manuscripts. Additionally, the placement of the story after Luke 21:38 seems perhaps to fit better contextually than where it occurs/is placed in John's Gospel.
ReplyDeleteBTW, I noticed that C. I. Scofield in his Reference Bible has a note on John 7:53-8:11 in which he seems to take the same view of it as Barclay does. Regarding this, Scofield says: "John 7.53-8.11 is not found in some of the most ancient manuscripts. Augustine declares that it was stricken from many copies of the sacred story because of a prudish fear that it might teach immorality!" (Scofield The Scofield Reference Bible [New York: Oxford University Press, 1917 Edition], p. 1125.)
ReplyDeleteBTW, I also found that C. K. Barrett affirms concerning the Pericope Adulterae that "it closely resembles in form and style the synoptic narratives (especially the style of Luke; see the notes)" (Barrett, The Gospel According to St. John, p. 491; cf. p. 492). This supports my view that the Pericope Adulterae was originally part of Luke's Gospel rather than John's Gospel.
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ReplyDeleteBTW, Scrivener offers an interesting theory that I think has some merit, explaining how the Pericope Adulterae came to be in John's Gospel. Scrivener postulates that John likely added chapter 21 to his Gospel after it was already written and the copies were already being circulated, and in the same way the Apostle could have added John 7:53 - 8:11 after his Gospel was already written and in circulation. Regarding this, Scrivener writes: "If ch. 20.30, 31 shew signs of having been the original end of this Gospel, and ch. 21 be a later supplement by the Apostle's own hand, which I think with Dean Alford is evidently the case, why should not S. John have inserted in this second edition ...this most edifying and eminently Christian narrative? The appended chapter (21) would thus be added at once to all copies of the Gospels then in circulation, ...though a portion of them might well overlook...from obvious though mistaken motives, might hesitate to receive for general use or public reading the history of the woman taken in adultery." (F. H. A. Scrivener, A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament, 3rd Edition, p. 610, ellipsis added. Note: I updated the Roman numerals to the current format.) What Scrivener says is, I'd say, entirely plausible, and would well explain why some of the earliest and best manuscripts don't contain John 7:53 - 8:11, yet others do. Scrivener's explanation also allows both sides in the textual criticism debate to "save face," because in such a scenario both sides are right! The Critical Text group is right by omitting the Pericope Adulterae since it wasn't in the very first manuscript of John's Gospel that he wrote and that was being circulated, and the Byzantine Majority text group is also right in this case, because the story of the woman caught in adultery was then added by John's own hand to the manuscript (or manuscripts) of his Gospel that were then in circulation and thus the added text is truly inspired! (John could have taken the story from another source and that would explain why many of the Greek words in the Pericope Adulterae are otherwise non-Johannine.) Concerning this, Scrivener goes on to conclude: "It must be in this way, if at all, that we can assign to the Evangelist ch. 7.53 - 8.11; on all intelligent principles of mere criticism the passage must needs be abandoned: and such is the conclusion arrived at by all the critical editors." (Ibid.) I basically agree. Like I said, the language of the Pericope Adulterae is clearly non-Johannine. So either John got it from another source and inserted it into his Gospel after it was already in circulation, or the story belongs in one of the Synoptic Gospels (either Matthew, Mark, or Luke), with Luke's Gospel being the most likely place where the story was originally until those "of slight faith" removed it "because the grace in dealing with the woman was unpalatable to legalists." (Merrill F. Unger, Unger's Bible Handbook [Chicago: Moody Press, 1967], p. 554). So I think that either explanation is viable, and in fact possibly both are true!
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ReplyDeleteSo in my view, the three most likely scenarios are the following:
ReplyDelete1) John got the Pericope Adulterae from another source (possibly one of the Synoptics) and included it in the 2nd edition of his Gospel after it was already in circulation. (John also could have added chapter 21 to his Gospel at this time as well.) This explains why many of the best NT manuscripts don't include the story of the woman caught in adultery, but others do. (Note: What Augustine says about the story being removed due to it's scandalous nature can still be true and in no way does it falsify this scenario. It actually explains why the Pericope Adulterae was removed from some of the copies, and why John chapter 21 was not removed.)
2) The Pericope Adulterae was originally in one of the Synoptic Gospels (most likely Luke's Gospel), but it was then removed "very early" from some of the few manuscripts that were in existence/in circulation. This early removal of the Pericope Adulterae from some of the NT manuscripts was due to a legalist fear that the story might encourage immorality.
3) The Pericope Adulterae WAS originally in John's Gospel (and he included it as a story that he got from another source, likely one of the Synoptics or maybe even personally from one of the Synoptic writers in his interactions with them). The Pericope Adulterae was then removed from John's Gospel "very early" due to a prudish fear that it might encourage immorality.
Note: The 2nd and 3rd scenarios, although plausible, seem to me the least likely of the three. Why? Because scenarios #2 and #3 would seem to cast unnecessary doubt on the general trustworthiness (or the characteristic trustworthiness) of the early uncial NT manuscripts that don't include the Pericope. In light of the general trustworthiness of the early NT manuscripts, it seems more likely that scenario #1 is the best, because in this case the early uncial manuscripts are preserving the first edition of John's Gospel, while the Byzantine NT manuscripts that include the story are preserving the second edition of John's Gospel (also written by his own hand). So in such a scenario as this, both groups are right! Scenario #1 is also consistent with the conclusion of many NT scholars that chapter 21 was added to John's Gospel at a later time, even by John's own hand. Scenario #1 also explains why the very earliest (and I believe the best) NT manuscripts don't contain the story, because it wasn't in the first edition of John's Gospel that was circulating.
Note: I should also mentioned that John chapter 21 and the Pericope Adulterae could have been added by John at different times. This would also help explain why many of the earliest NT manuscripts contain John chapter 21 but not the Pericope. You see what I'm saying? It's hard to determine because we don't know the exact timeline or sequence of when each section was added and to what NT manuscripts.
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